Business Impact Analysis And DR Planning

In addition to risk analysis organizations must conduct a business impact analysis in order to determine the criticality of business functions. This analysis aids the IT staff and management in determining what resources to put into protecting these business functions, as well as in what order functions should be restored in the event of a disaster.

Consider an organization such as the Bridge Street Center discussed in the case study in Module 04 Written Assignment – Case Study Analysis: Risk Analysis in a Hospital Setting. IT services deliver important functions for both staff and patients, but in the event of a disaster (natural or otherwise) the small IT staff must be prepared to resource services in the way that serves the organization the best.

Requirements:

  • List five IT/computer systems that would be used by the Bridge Street Center that would be supported by the IT department in order to conduct regular business, support employees, care for patients, etc. These would be systems that would be in danger of “going down” and would need to be restored in the event of a power outage or disaster.  Describe each system, its purpose, and who uses it.
  • For each of the five systems you chose, give the parameters for each of the following should there be a system outage:
    1. Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
    2. Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
    3. Business recovery prerequisites
    4. Technical recovery prerequisites

Note:  The four terms above are described in your textbook reading.  You also may want to do some additional research on the internet.  If you do, be sure to cite your references.
Your paper should include the following criteria:

  • 1 page in length, double-spaced.
  • Free of spelling, grammar, and punctuation errors.
 

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Imagine that you are a director of performance management.

nstructions

Imagine that you are a director of performance management. With this role in mind, briefly compare and contrast the traditional annual evaluation method of performance appraisals with the new real-time feedback coaching format. State which method you support, and explain why. How do you think Frederick W. Taylor would respond to the real-time feedback coaching system? Explain.

Be sure to follow the guidelines below.

  • Your paper should be at least three pages in length (not counting the title page and reference page).
  • Writing should include proper grammar, sentence structure, and writing mechanics.
  • Organization should be logical, clear, and appropriate.
  • You should provide strong evidence of critical thinking.
  • Paragraphs should contain strong topic sentences.
  • The essay should begin with an introduction to the topic.
  • You should make use of logical transitions.
  • You must find at least two additional references in addition to any of the required readings that you use for a total of five references.
  • All sources used must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.
  • Your paper should be formatted in accordance to APA format.
 

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“Feasibility” SHOULD: “Making the Case” Persuasive summary of the key issues supporting your decision to support or reject the legislation. This is where you as a political leader speak to the heart.

CAN:

“Feasibility”

SHOULD: “Making the

Case”

Persuasive summary of the key issues supporting your decision to support or reject the legislation. This is where you as a political leader speak to the heart.

Explaining why this is worthy of being focused on by your party (in light of what the party is trying to accomplish in Congress)

Make the case knowing that you might be making enemies for supporting (or opposing) this piece of legislation

Politics is a battle of ideas and agendas—how are you going to make the case knowing that you might make enemies, and knowing that if your party leadership focuses on your legislation, it might mean that someone else’s agenda will be stymied?

MAY: “Authority”

 Is the piece of legislation supported by Biblical principles?

 Is the piece of legislation in keeping with the enumerated powers listed in the Constitution?

Political Feasibility: Does the bill have a chance of passing the House and Senate and being signed by the President? What public opinion polls are relevant?

Financial Feasibility: How much would the legislation cost, particularly in light of current budget constraints? What impact would there be on the economy?

Practical Feasibility: what are the key hurdles for implementing this legislation in terms of timing, logistics, resources, and technology? As a lawmaker, you have to anticipate those challenges in order to weigh the merits of the legislation.

CAN:

“Feasibility”

SHOULD: “Making the

Case”

Persuasive summary of the key issues supporting your decision to support or reject the legislation. This is where you as a political leader speak to the heart.

Explaining why this is worthy of being focused on by your party (in light of what the party is trying to accomplish in Congress)

Make the case knowing that you might be making enemies for supporting (or opposing) this piece of legislation

Politics is a battle of ideas and agendas—how are you going to make the case knowing that you might make enemies, and knowing that if your party leadership focuses on your legislation, it might mean that someone else’s agenda will be stymied?

MAY: “Authority”

 Is the piece of legislation supported by Biblical principles?

 Is the piece of legislation in keeping with the enumerated powers listed in the Constitution?

Political Feasibility: Does the bill have a chance of passing the House and Senate and being signed by the President? What public opinion polls are relevant?

Financial Feasibility: How much would the legislation cost, particularly in light of current budget constraints? What impact would there be on the economy?

Practical Feasibility: what are the key hurdles for implementing this legislation in terms of timing, logistics, resources, and technology? As a lawmaker, you have to anticipate those challenges in order to weigh the merits of the legislation.

 

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HCA 305 Introduction To Community Health Final Exam

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. Community health concerns of the 21st century include ___________.

a. lifestyle diseases

b. health care delivery

c. environmental problems

d. All of the above.

2. Differences in health among different populations define ___________.

a. health disparities

b. population health

c. lifestyle diseases

d. social engineering

3. The organization in the United States with the main responsibility for improving health is

 ___________.

a. the Department of Homeland Security

b. the World Health Organization

c. the Department of Health and Human Services

d. state departments of health

4. John Snow’s removal of a drinking water pump handle in 1854 in London stopped a

 ___________.

a. smallpox epidemic

b. yellow fever epidemic

c. waterborne disease outbreak

d. cholera epidemic

5. The Shattuck report marked the beginning of the ___________.

a. implementation of Healthy People 2020 efforts

b. eighteenth century

c. modern era of public health

d. health resource development period 3

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

6. Physical factors affecting community health include all of the following except:

a. geography

b. community size

c. industrial development

d. None of the above.

7. Dr. Edward Jenner successfully demonstrated the process of vaccination as a protection

against ____________ in the 18th century.

a. smallpox

b. whooping cough

c. measles

d. rubella

8. According to the text, all of the following were the leading causes of death in the early 2000’s

except:

a. cancer

b. AIDS

c. heart disease

d. stroke

9. Which agency is a leading medical research center and the federal focal point for medical

research in the United States?

a. National Institutes of Health (NIH)

b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

c. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)

d. Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)

10. The power to arrest someone who refuses to undergo treatment for a communicable disease

lies with a __________.

a. scientist within the NIH

b. community health nurse

c. local health officer

d. member of the local board of health

11. The mission of professional health organizations is to ___________.

a. promote high standards of professional practice for their specific professions

b. provide services to people affected with various diseases and conditions

c. raise money for community health agencies

d. expand worksite health promotion programs4

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

12. The main reason for corporate involvement in community health is due to ____________.

a. the federal mandates for employee wellness programs

b. their tax status

c. efforts to keep infectious disease rates low

d. the provision of health care benefits to employees

13. The largest and most visible international health agency is the ____________.

a. Pan American Health Organization

b. United Nations

c. World Health Organization

d. Department of Health and Human Services

14. Funding that comes from the federal government to the state government is referred to as

 ___________ funding.

a. horizontal

b. vertical

c. top-down

d. down-top

15. One of the World Health Organization’s most noteworthy achievements was helping to

eradicate:

a. smallpox

b. chickenpox

c. polio

d. scarlet fever

16. An example of a quasi-governmental health organization is ____________.

a. the National Science Foundation

b. a county health department

c. the National Institutes of Health (NIH)

d. the American Cancer Society

17. The practice of assigning subjects to treatments or control groups in a completely random

manner is ___________.

a. cohorting

b. double-blinding

c. blinding

d. randomization5

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

18. The national health survey that is a state-based telephone survey of the civilian,

noninstitutional, adult population that seeks to ascertain the prevalence of high-risk

behaviors is the ___________.

a. National Health Interview Survey

b. National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey

c. National Health Care Survey

d. Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System

19. A probability statement about the association between a particular disease and a specific risk

factor is ____________.

a. an odds ratio

b. relative risk

c. criteria of causation

d. an epidemic curve

20. This term is derived from Greek words that can be translated into the phrase “the study of

that which is upon the people”.

a. historiology

b. sociology

c. epidemiology

d. biology

21. According to the text, waves of the plague occurred how many times in history?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

22. __________ studies are epidemiological studies in which the researcher selects a large

number of healthy subjects who share a similar experience, such as year of birth or high

school graduation.

a. Experimental

b. Cohort

c. Observational

d. Descriptive 6

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

23. A pathogenic agent enters a susceptible host through a ___________.

a. carrier

b. portal of entry

c. portal of exit

d. reservoir

24. Adequate food supply and getting regular exercise are examples of ___________.

a. primary prevention of noncommunicable diseases

b. primary prevention of communicable diseases

c. secondary prevention of communicable diseases

d. secondary prevention of noncommunicable diseases

25. Community efforts aimed at preventing the recurrence of an epidemic is an example of

 ___________.

a. secondary prevention of noncommunicable diseases

b. tertiary prevention of noncommunicable diseases

c. tertiary prevention of communicable diseases

d. secondary prevention of communicable diseases

26. What is the third stage in the chain of infection model?

a. portal of exit

b. pathogen

c. transmission

d. portal of entry

27. Which of the following are indirect modes of transmission?

a. airborne

b. vehicleborne

c. vectorborne

d. All of the above.

28. Etiology is the ___________.

a. treatment for a disease

b. effects of a disease

c. cause of a disease

d. symptoms of a disease7

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

29. An example of a community gatekeeper is a ____________.

a. politician

b. teacher

c. member of the clergy

d. All of the above.

30. The evaluation that focuses on immediate observable effects of a program is ___________

evaluation.

a. process

b. impact

c. outcome

d. formative

31. The process of collecting and analyzing information to develop an understanding of the

issues, resources, and constraints of the priority population to better develop a health

promotion program is ___________.

a. creating an intervention

b. setting appropriate goals and objectives

c. pilot testing

d. a needs assessment

32. ___________ is the third step in program evaluation.

a. Analyzing the data

b. Reporting the results

c. Planning the evaluation

d. Applying the results

33. In the generalized model for program planning, ___________ is the first step.

a. setting goals

b. developing strategies

c. assessing needs

d. None of the above.

34. Which of the following tasks is a school nurse, who is contracted with an outside health

agency, less likely to do?

a. serve in a leadership role for health policies and programs

b. provide direct health care to students and staff

c. provide screening and referral for health conditions

d. All of the above.8

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

35. AFHK, an organization that works with schools to improve nutrition and physical activity,

stands for ___________.

a. Active, Fun, Healthy Kids

b. Action for Healthy Kids

c. Activities for Healthy Kids

d. All for Healthy Kids

36. The ___________ of a health curriculum outlines what will be taught.

a. sequence

b. policy

c. scope

d. mission

37. All school districts are required to have at least __________ full-time school nurse.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. None of the above.

38. In 1984, the “gag rule” ___________.

a. barred physicians and nurses in clinics receiving federal funds from counseling

clients about abortions

b. barred only nurses in clinics receiving federal funds from counseling clients about

abortions

c. barred only physicians in clinics receiving federal funds from counseling clients about

abortions

d. was repelled

39. The decision in Roe v. Wade ___________.

a. made it legal for state laws to prohibit abortions

b. made it unconstitutional for state laws to prohibit abortions

c. resulted in the “gag rule”

d. made it easy for women to get abortions during any trimester

40. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that babies be breast-fed for the first

 __________ of life.

a. three months

b. six months

c. year

d. month9

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

41. __________ is also referred to as crib death.

a. FAS

b. SIDS

c. ARBD

d. LBW

42. ___________ is the third leading cause of infant death.

a. FAS

b. SIDS

c. ARBD

d. LBW

43. The “Back to Sleep” campaign advised that infants should sleep ___________.

a. on their stomachs

b. on their backs

c. on their sides

d. Both b and c are correct.

44. WIC is a program that provides ___________.

a. health insurance for women and children

b. supplemental food and nutrition assistance to women, infant, and children

c. medical care for low income, pregnant women

d. childcare subsidies for low-income families

45. Adolescents and young adults are individuals between the ages of ___________.

a. 13 to 22

b. 15 to 24

c. 16 to 25

d. 16 to 23

46. For adolescents and young adults, approximately three-fourths of all mortality can be

attributed to all of the following except ____________.

a. suicide

b. car accidents

c. drug overdose

d. homicide10

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

47. Most of the physical threat to health for adolescents and young adults stems from

 ____________.

a. social class

b. genetics

c. disease

d. behavior

48. An increase in federal tobacco taxes is being used to help fund ___________.

a. political campaigns

b. the State Children’s Health Insurance Program (CHIP)

c. Social Security

d. WIC

49. What are the leading types of cancer that account for the large numbers in the adult men

age group?

a. Prostate, lung, and colorectal cancer

b. breast, skin, and lung cancer

c. prostate, skin, and lung cancer

d. stomach, breast, and colorectal cancer

50. Individuals between the ages of _________ and __________ fall under the adult age group.

a. 23, 55

b. 25, 60

c. 25, 64

d. 22, 60

51. Eating, bathing, and toileting are examples of ___________.

a. tasks of daily living

b. instrumental tasks

c. cognitive tasks

d. expressive tasks

52. Important vaccinations for elders include ____________.

a. smallpox and influenza

b. pneumonia and influenza

c. pneumonia and HPV

d. HPV and influenza11

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

53. More elderly women are single as opposed to elderly men because _____________.

a. men tend to marry younger women

b. husbands die at a younger age than their wives

c. widowed men are more likely to remarry than widowed women

d. All of the above.

54. __________, considered to be an ideal model for large-scale long-term care facilities for the

elder, was created by Dr. William Thomas.

a. Eden Alternative

b. Paradise Alternative

c. Autonomy Alternative

d. Freedom Alternative

55. Today in the United States, the majority of Americans are referred to as ___________.

a. Caucasian

b. white

c. white, mixed-Hispanic

d. white, non-Hispanic

56. The Race and Health Initiative was launched by President ____________.

a. Bush (senior)

b. Clinton

c. Obama

d. Bush

57. _____________ have the highest poverty rates.

a. American Indians and Alaska natives

b. Americans of Hispanic origins

c. Black Americans

d. Pacific Islanders

58. The median income for ____________ has consistently ranked below all racial and ethnic

groups.

a. Hispanic or Latino Americans

b. Asian Americans

c. Pacific Islanders

d. Black Americans12

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

59. It was not until 1921 that more emphasis was given to providing health services to

 ___________ thanks to the Snyder Act.

a. Hispanic or Latino Americans

b. Native Americans

c. Asian Americans

d. Black Americans

60. A(n) ___________ is a person who flees one area or country to seek shelter or protection

from danger in another.

a. Alien

b. Immigrant

c. Emigrant

d. Refugee

61. Which of the following is the first out of the six priority areas of The Race and Health

 Initiative?

a. Cardiovascular disease

b. Infant mortality

c. Adult and child immunization

d. HIV/AIDS

62. Approximately 8% (24 million people) of children and adults in the United States have

 ____________.

a. diabetes

b. some form of cancer

c. HIV/AIDS

d. some form of disability

63. ___________ is the leading cause of disability in North America and Europe.

a. Diabetes

b. Mental illness

c. Motor vehicle accidents

d. Work-related accidents13

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

64. Health conditions characterized by alterations in thinking, mood, or behavior associated with

distress and/or impaired functioning.

a. mental illness

b. mental handicap

c. mental disorder

d. mental immaturity

65. The fight or flight reaction occurs during which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome?

a. the alarm reaction stage

b. the stage of resistance

c. the stage of exhaustion

d. all stages

66. All of the following are possible diseases of adaption except:

a. asthma

b. coronary heart disease

c. anxiety

d. ulcers

67. In order to reduce stress, one can ___________.

a. eat healthy

b. meditate

c. exercise

d. All of the above.

68. In the 19th century, ___________ was personally involved in the founding of many public

mental hospitals funded by individual states.

a. Dorothea Dix

b. William Tuke

c. Walter Freeman

d. Philippe Pinel

69. Deinstitutionalization occurred due to all of the following reasons except:

a. the development of antipsychotic drugs

b. legal considerations

c. lobotomies were successful

d. economic considerations14

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

70. Disorder characterized by distinct periods of elevated mood alternating with periods of

depression.

a. Schizophrenia

b. Bipolar disorder

c. Clinical depression

d. Tardive dyskinesia

71. Irreversible, involuntary, and abnormal movements of the tongue, mouth, arms, and legs.

a. Schizophrenia

b. Bipolar disorder

c. Clinical depression

d. Tardive dyskinesia

72. ECT, formerly known as shock therapy, is sometimes used for all of the following conditions

except:

a. major depression

b. extreme cases of bipolar disorder

c. selected cases of schizophrenia

d. overwhelming suicidal ideation

73. According to this country, supernatural spirits are believed to cause mental illness.

a. Denmark

b. Indonesia

c. Tanzania

d. Cananda

74. Psychophysiological disorders associated with stress include ___________.

a. depression

b. hypertension

c. skin disorders

d. All of the above.

75. Deinstitutionalization from state mental hospitals began in the ____________.

a. 1920s

b. 1990s

c. 1950s

d. 1980s15

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

76. Treatment that involves intensive, individualized services over an indefinite period of time is

 ___________.

a. psychopharmacology

b. managed care

c. psychotherapy

d. psychiatric rehabilitation

77. ___________ has the potential to cause mental disorders.

a. Poor prenatal care

b. A car crash

c. Syphilis

d. All of the above.

78. Approximately how many teenage girls in the United States get pregnant at least once

before the age of 20?

a. one-half

b. 5%

c. 65%

d. one-third

79. The neonatal mortality period is death that occurs up to ___________.

a. 6 months after birth

b. 7 days after birth

c. 28 days after birth

d. one year after birth

80. For community organizing/building and health promotion programming efforts to be

successful, people must ___________.

a. be a part of the planning committee

b. be voluntary participants

c. be community gatekeepers

d. change their behavior

81. In creating a health promotion program, __________ are the steps taken in pursuit of a(n)

 ___________. They address who, what, when, and by how much.

a. goals; objective

b. objectives; goal

c. aims; plan

d. None of the above.16

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

82. A common topic of controversy in school health education is ____________.

a. alcohol

b. nutrition

c. suicide

d. violence

83. The general public has become more aware of violence in schools because of ____________.

a. the marketing efforts schools have placed on violence prevention

b. the number of high-profile incidents of violence in schools across the country

c. gun control laws

d. the Coordinated School Health Program

84. An unexpectedly large number of cases of an illness, specific health-related behavior, or

other health-related event in a particular population defines a ____________.

a. pandemic

b. epidemic

c. outbreak

d. plague

85. Sometimes notifiable diseases are not reported to the local health department because

patients recover without a diagnosis being confirmed.

a. True

b. False

86. The ability of the health care system to prevent, protect against, quickly respond to, and

recover from health emergencies defines medical preparedness.

a. True

b. False

87. Approximately one-half of pregnancies in the United States are unintended.

a. True

b. False

88. Title V is the only federal legislation dedicated to promoting and improving the health of

our nation’s mothers and children.

a. True

b. False17

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

89. FMLA provides paid family leave for women and men after the birth of a child.

a. True

b. False

90. Diseases for which the reservoir resides in animal populations are called anthroponoses.

a. True

b. False

91. Noncommunicable diseases have complex etiologies.

a. True

b. False

92. Those who control, both formally and informally, the political climate of the community are

referred to as gatekeepers.

a. True

b. False

93. “To help employees learn how to manage their stress,” is an example of a program

objective.

a. True

b. False

94. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) has been banned from use in the United States.

a. True

B. False

95. Green Houses are a form of group living that limit the number of residents and offer a home

rather than a facility.

a. True

b. False

96. Adult day care programs are required to provide health care services.

a. True

b. False18

Final Examination

HCA 305 Introduction to Community Health

97. A drug that subdues a mental patient’s behavior is referred to as tardive dyskinesia.

a. True

b. False

98. Until recently, the federal government’s leadership in community mental health has been

substantial.

a. True

b. False

99. Only about one-third of those diagnosed with a mental disorder receive treatment.

a. True

b. False

100. Chronic nutritional deficiency is a possible cause of mental disorders in some.

a. True

b. False

 

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Why performance reviews are difficult conversations Performance appraisal can be a difficult conversation to have if relaying corrective feedback due to poor performance

Running head: CORE SKILLS OF ENGAGEMENT 1

CORE SKILLS OF ENGAGEMENT 2

Core Skills of Engagement

Student’s name

Institution

Introduction

The first step in building skills of engagement is to be fully engaged. It’s a vital step to determine employee engagement. Utilizing a performance appraisal system can be a crucial tool for not only the employee but most importantly documented for the employer. Performance appraisal also referred to as performance reviews or performance evaluations is a part of the managerial function where a formal assessment of the employee’s work is conducted. Performance appraisals aim at identifying the core strengths and weaknesses to be provided as feedback to employees and pinpoint ways of improvement moving forward. Typically, after the provided feedback is presented to employees goals for future performance can be set. Performance appraisals are carried out as frequently as possible or after specified periods for example annually, quarterly, monthly, weekly or when management sees fit.

Why performance reviews are difficult conversations

Performance appraisal can be a difficult conversation to have if relaying corrective feedback due to poor performance. Performance appraisals are a core part of making decisions regarding employees and can lead to discontent and worry about the safety of their future at the company. After an evaluation has been made, the performance appraisal conversation may be held to give positive feedback on excellent performance which is easy to do as there are no bad feelings in the end. Having a conversation with a poorly performing employee is more difficult as it involves criticizing the employee’s work ethic. The managers in such situations must employ top managerial and communications skills to positively criticize the employee and motivate or guide him on ways to improve his performance in his duties and responsibilities (Kondrasuk, 2011).

Introducing performance reviews

One of the cores skills needed to handle performance reviews is communication skills. A manager should be able to hold a real conversation with intentions of motivating employees to work on improving weak areas. A manager should be able to listen actively and identify any underlying issues that affect employees and work with them to solve any foreseen issues. Another skill that is required for performance reviews would be relationship building skills. A manager should have the ability to build a working relationship with employees in which they can guide and motivate employees to improve performance. Managerial skills are also required to acquire favorable outcomes from performance reviews. The manager should implement his skills to handle conflicts, resistance or own motivation to make improvements by the employees (Jha, 2016).

Three (3) core skills used and rationale for each

As stated in the text, the core skills of engagement are: telling the truth, self-disclosure, framing choices, extending goodwill, taking and supporting the other side, naming difficult issues, acknowledging doubt, anxiety, and guilt, and making promises and offering guarantees (Block, 2011). The three chosen core skills of engagement are telling the truth, naming difficult issues, and making promises and offering guarantees. The named cores skills will be implemented as stated through communication, relationship building and managerial skills.

Please expound a little bit more within the three listed below ensuring they provide explanation of the three and rationale for utilizing the three

Telling the truth. Managers can easily introduce performance reviews by telling the truth. In this case, the manager is honest to the employee about the results of the performance review which may also include disclosing the position of the company on how he is performing. Telling the truth may be trying for the relationship between the employer and employee, but it will be useful in bringing out desired outcomes of the performance review.

Naming difficult issues. Managers can also introduce the performance review by naming the difficult issues present for each situation. Conflicts and unresolved resistance within the organization can be harmful to the organization as it drains the employee’s energy, relationships and motivation to improve their performance. The managers should, therefore, be prepared to directly address the problematic issues that the organization is facing and guide the members on finding and implementing practical solutions.

Making promises and offering guarantees. Managers can also introduce the performance review with added benefits such as making promises and offering guarantees. After the evaluation is complete, the employer can be motivated to improve on weak areas by providing opportunities to look forward to if the performance improves. The manager can also make guarantees to the employee such as ensuring that job position will not be taken away to help the employee focus on improvement and not worry about losing the job (Block, 2011).

Conclusion

References

Block, P. (2011). Flawless consulting: A guide to getting your expertise used (3rd Ed.). San Francisco: Pfeiffer-Wiley

Jha, B., & Kumar, A. (2016). Employee engagement: A strategic tool to enhance performance. DAWN: Journal for Contemporary Research in Management3(2), 21-29.

Kondrasuk, J. N. (2011). So what would an ideal performance appraisal look like?. Journal of Applied Business and Economics12(1), 57-71.

 

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Block, P. (2011). Flawless consulting: A guide to getting your expertise used (3rd Ed.). San Francisco: Pfeiffer-Wiley THE CORE SKILLS OF ENGAGEMENT

PAGES 59-61

Block, P. (2011). Flawless consulting: A guide to getting your expertise used (3rd Ed.)San Francisco: Pfeiffer-Wiley

THE CORE SKILLS OF ENGAGEMENT

Conversations aimed at engaging another require both intention and technique. The commitments listed in discussing the “changes of the heart” are all issues of intention. Here are some skills, methods, and techniques that are useful for encouraging and creating conversations of engagement. The list is neither complete nor comprehensive. The point is to get practical.

Telling the Truth.

Telling the truth is the foundation of engagement. Without disclosing the truth as we know it, nothing else is possible and engagement will fail. When we offer spin, distortion, omission, or lie as a substitute for authenticity, we create worlds we cannot believe in or sustain. Even more damaging, we affirm our belief that relationships cannot bear the simple light of truth. To tell the truth with goodwill is an absolute affirmation of faith in relationships.

Self-Disclosure.

Asking yourself or others to fully engage in work with hands, heart, and mind is impossible without offering and encouraging discussions about feelings and issues of the heart. Choosing and inviting emotional transparency creates authentic relationships and integrates the person with work.

Framing Choices.

Framing choices is the alternative to prescription, care taking, and other techniques that try to “get people to do something.” Naming the choices you see for yourself and asking others to do the same makes issues of freedom, accountability, and meaning immediately relevant and compelling.

Extending Goodwill.

Goodwill is not a feeling. It is an intention. To choose goodwill toward another is to offer a contribution to the person’s success and the success of whatever joint ventures you are pursuing. Goodwill does not require you to like or love the other. Goodwill bases the relationship on commitment to contribute, even in the face of disappointment.

Taking and Supporting the Other Side.

Extending understanding to others by publicly embracing their positions is one of the most powerful ways available to deepen a relationship, validate the value of the other, and move the conversation. It is the alternative to arguing, attacking, and treating the other cosmetically with statements such as, “I understand, but….”

Naming the Difficult Issues.

Unnamed and unresolved resistance, conflict, and cynicism debilitate organizations, draining them and their members of energy, optimism, and the belief that they can deal with confrontation. Avoiding, denying, and rationalizing the issue rarely fixes anything. Publicly naming these issues with goodwill and inviting engagement are central to getting “unstuck.”

Acknowledging Doubt, Anxiety, and Guilt.

Confessing doubt, anxiety, and fault does not come easily to any of us. No one welcomes anxiety, vulnerability, and responsibility for harsh realities. Yet nothing speaks louder for the value and power of accountability. Nothing does more to encourage the same act in others. If we want everyone to embrace accountability for the whole, for change, and for the creation of a common future, acknowledging doubt, anxiety, and guilt is a fundamental skill.

Making Promises and Offering Guarantees.

Few of us are eager to abandon or close all escape routes. Nothing in organizational life is quite so rare as someone who insists on offering accountability and giving guarantees. The skill to do this in forming work relationships with peers, customers, and other constituencies is one of the most powerful tools available for using conversations to change the culture.

 

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Employee Recruitment Selection Submission 5

No plagiarism,

The purpose of this assignment is to give you a better understanding of how personnel data are managed. You will compose a 1,200–1,500-word report that discusses the type of documentation kept in your employee file, what legislation governs how long your files are kept, and how they are grouped together.

Your research will be based on information garnered from the following source of information:

  • Your current workplace. You will need to contact the HR office or your immediate supervisor for this assignment. If you are currently unemployed, you can contact a previous employer.
  • If neither of these is an option, you can contact a company that you are familiar with in your local market and request this type of information from the HR office.

Your report will include the following:

  • Construct a guide that lists what documents are kept in your employee file (please note that these are general documents, such as employee appraisals and sick leave requests).
  • Provide information highlighting which documents are filed together and which are located in separate files.
  • Include the length of time that material is saved and the duration that files must be retained before they can be disposed.
  • Be sure to include the state and federal regulations guiding file management and retention.
 

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Assignment : Gene Technology

Due Week 8 and worth 120 points

Gene technology carries with it social and ethical implications—many of which engender personal views and discussion.

Select one (1) of the following biotechnology topics to write about:

  • Genetically modified crop plants
  • Genetically modified microorganisms
  • Genetically modified animals
  • Personal genomics and / or personalized medicine for humans
  • Gene therapy

Write a four to six (4 to 6) page paper on your chosen topic.  Organize your paper into sections corresponding to the following requirements:

  1. Biological basis. Describe the technology. Discuss what it accomplishes. Elaborate on the scientific principles that make this technology possible. Your goal in this section of the paper is to show the instructor that you understand the underlying science behind the technology. Describe how exactly the technology works. Discuss the biological principles that underlie this technology.
  2. Social and ethical implications. Without disclosing your personal view about this technology, provide an analysis of its social and ethical implications. State the ethical concerns apparent in the use of this technology. Discuss the benefits and risks. Your goal in this section is to look at all sides of the issue. In the next section, you will give your opinion.
  3. Personal viewpoint. In the previous section, your goal was to be as objective as possible, to look at all sides of the issues. In this section, your goals are to give a personal opinion about the technology and provide a justification of that opinion.
  4. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment, in addition to the course text. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. The body of the paper must have in-text citations that correspond to the references. Integrate all sources into your paper using proper techniques of quoting, paraphrasing and summarizing, along with proper use of in-text citations to credit your sources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Examine DNA structure, and function, gene expression, and control.
  • Discuss the various applications of genomics and biotechnology.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in biology.
  • Write clearly and concisely about biology using proper writing mechanics.
 
 

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Discussion Thread – Diagnosing Change

Introduction

Organizational change requires for an organization to view the current processes such as operational methods, structure, strategies and the steps to be taken to improve practices. The best practice an organization can take when implementing organizational change is to prepare. Some of the disadvantages to organizational change include costs, personnel resistance and the direct effects the changes may present. Organizations must plan change out accordingly in order to successfully maximize change efforts. This paper entails the U.S. Navy implementing a new initiative to maximize customer service relations.

U. S. Navy in terms of industry, size, number of employees, and history

On October 13, 1775, General George Washington founded the Continental Navy to defend American Colonies from British attacks. The primary mission of the U.S. Navy is to maintain freedom of the seas making it possible for the United States to use the seas when and where national interests require it (“U.S. Navy”). The Navy is also primarily responsible for transporting Marines to areas of conflict (“U.S. Navy”). On April 30, 1798, a congressional act was signed by President John Adams establishing the Continental Navy as The Department of the Navy.

The United States Navy is one of the five armed forces branches in the United States of America and the largest most capable Navy in the world. As of March 2019, there are 332,507 personnel on active duty, 101,018 in the Ready Reserve and 274,854 Department of the Navy Civilian Employees totaling a force of 708, 379 personnel (US Navy, “Navy.mil Home Page”). Furthermore, as of today the U.S. Navy has 289 deployable ships and a plethora aircraft.

Current HR practice, policy, process, or procedure that should be changed

The Navy rolled out an initiative to consolidate several Personnel Support Detachment (PSD) and Customer Support Detachment (CSD) locations designed to improve efficiency and provide Sailors with a modern service delivery model. Modernizing and centralizing customer support services are beneficial towards self-service initiatives, such as, updating records of emergency data, submitting changes to marital status, adding dependents, and requests to separate or retire online.

Consolidation of the personnel and customer support detachments led to massive workloads that are required to maintain adequate and timeliness of tasks in regards to customer service matters. The changes implemented were hastily implemented in a disorganized fashion without comprehensive guidelines. Furthermore, the implemented changes eliminated the face-to-face and personal aspect of customer service that was being provided to thousands of Sailors and civilian personnel. It is vital for all Command Pay and Personnel Administrator’s (CPPA’s) to maintain accountability, auditability, and full engagement with personnel in the absence of the local PSD’s and CSD’s.

To date, countless Sailors lack the guidance on how to initiate the vital requests they are now responsible to complete which requires them to rely on newly published guidelines or CPPA’s. The unknown is hinders personnel readiness for change. An abundance of Sailors lack guidance regarding individual requirements of the self-service integration, allowing room for needless error and delays. These errors and delays will require either additional training or consistent revisions from CPPA’s. Subject matter experts should have had active training and presented a trial period before the action was rolled out into the fleet.

1. Formulate three (3) valid reasons for the proposed change based on current change management theories.

2. Appraise the diagnostic tools that you can use to determine an organization’s readiness for change. Propose two (2) diagnostic tools which you can utilize to determine if the organization is ready for change. Defend why you believe the diagnostic tools selected are the best choice for diagnosing change in the organization.

3. Using one (1) of the diagnostic tools you selected, assess the organization’s readiness for change.

a. Provide results of the diagnostic analysis

b. Explain the results

4. Interpret whether or not the organization is ready for change. Substantiate your conclusion by referencing current change management theories.

References

US Navy. (n.d.). Navy.mil Home Page. Retrieved April 26, 2019, from

https://www.navy.mil/navydata/nav_legacy.asp?id=146

U.S. Navy. (n.d.). Retrieved April 26, 2019, from

https://foundationofpatriotism.org/new-exhibits/u-s-navy/

 

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Using the organization that your professor has preapproved, synthesize the organization’s readiness for change.

Using the organization that your professor has preapproved, synthesize the organization’s readiness for change. Evaluate whether or not to implement your new program, policy, practice, or procedure. Submit a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:

  1. Describe the company in terms of      industry, size, number of employees, and history.
  2. Analyze in detail the current HR      practice, policy, process, or procedure that you believe should be      changed.
  3. Formulate three (3) valid reasons for      the proposed change based on current change management theories.
  4. Appraise the diagnostic tools that you      can use to determine an organization’s readiness for change. Propose two      (2) diagnostic tools which you can utilize to determine if the      organization is ready for change. Defend why you believe the diagnostic      tools selected are the best choice for diagnosing change in the      organization.
  5. Using one (1) of the diagnostic tools      you selected, assess the organization’s readiness for change.
    1. Provide results of the diagnostic       analysis
    2. Explain the results
  6. Interpret whether or not the      organization is ready for change. Substantiate your conclusion by      referencing current change management theories.Using the organization that your professor has preapproved, synthesize the organization’s readiness for change. Evaluate whether or not to implement your new program, policy, practice, or procedure. Submit a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
    1. Describe the company in terms of      industry, size, number of employees, and history.
    2. Analyze in detail the current HR      practice, policy, process, or procedure that you believe should be      changed.
    3. Formulate three (3) valid reasons for      the proposed change based on current change management theories.
    4. Appraise the diagnostic tools that you      can use to determine an organization’s readiness for change. Propose two      (2) diagnostic tools which you can utilize to determine if the      organization is ready for change. Defend why you believe the diagnostic      tools selected are the best choice for diagnosing change in the      organization.
    5. Using one (1) of the diagnostic tools      you selected, assess the organization’s readiness for change.
      1. Provide results of the diagnostic       analysis
      2. Explain the results
    6. Interpret whether or not the      organization is ready for change. Substantiate your conclusion by      referencing current change management theories.
 

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